The coming of the Son of Man: A response to Sandy’s first post Peter Bolt

Thanks Peter. I feel the force of what you say… so far. But really I’m waiting for the next post!

The thing I found that most made me move (partly) away from the reading you suggest is the use of the trumpet and thief imagery in other New Testament authors and the <i>prima facie</i> likelihood they would have used the images in ways consistent with Jesus (as I said in my second post on the topic.)

Unless I have been a careless blog reader, no one has really interacted with that point so far. That could be because it’s was a really weak point and I am the only one not to realise it!

But even just for my sake, I hope your second post might address that matter somewhere.

Since I have just preached on Matthew 24 over the past 2 weeks, and have been in touch with Peter about his thoughts on it, I thought I’d pass on my take on Matthew 24!

1. I take it the ‘abomination that causes desolation’ is what has just happened - nb Matt 23 JEsus says ‘Your house is left desolate’. The glory departs the temple, Jesus leaves in judgement on it (as prophesied by Malachi) and it is now a shell like the first temple after God’s glory departed, awaiting judgement.
2. 29 - 31 are about Jesus’ death, resurrection and exaltation and sending of the disciples. NB Jesus says ‘immediately after the distress of those days’ - the abomination that is - these things will happen.
3. Jesus does speak of the destruction of the temple. This is the topic he introduced in vv1 - 2; his warnings to the disciples in 4f are about the leadup to the destruction of the temple - note the echo the warnings of ch 10. All happened in the lifetime of the disciples. Jesus is effectively saying, ‘THe abomination has happened;its only a matter of time now before the temple is destroyed - it will happen in your lifetime (v34).
3. From v36 onwards is speaking of the second coming. In fact it should be translated as the returning of the Son of Man - having received all authority from God. Reasons:
a. Its clear the Son has come (gone) to the ancient of days in fulfilment of Dan 7 by the end of MAtthew 28 so in v 30 the ‘sign of the coming (returning) of the Son of Man’ is the going of the Son of Man to the ancient of days. I.e. JEsus death and resurrection are the sign of his return.
b. Jesus speaks of things he knows the time for in vv4 - 34; but the topic of 36f he does not know the time for.
c. Jesus has just said ‘heaven and earth will pass away’ which transitions the section to a new topic - when ‘that day’ (v36) will happen.
d. ‘The coming of the Son of Man’ - referred to 4 times in these brief verses though only once in contrast in v27 of the 4 - 35 section - is the same as the Ancient of Days vindicating the saints in Daniel 7 15f. Note from Matt 25v14f that the Son of Man does the work which the Ancient of Days is said to do in Dan 7.
e. This fits better with the various parables that come speaking about events that will happen at the haqrvest at ‘the end of the age’ (rather than the time for growing) as Jesus has made clear in the parable of the weeds in Matt 13.

No doubt few will be convinced, but for mine it makes sense of the confusion! Jesus is predicting his death and resurrection and with it the temple is doomed; all that remains after that takes place is his return to judge.

I don’t think we can completely dismiss the details of apolcalyptic language as easily as Peter suggests; its a very long chapter to be recorded for the application solely of the apostles (Matt 10 begins that way then broadens). Also, the destruction of the temple does have great theological significance - e.g. in Hebrews with a new priesthood comes a new law and ‘what is obsolete and aging will soon disappear’.

No doubt most will find that confusing but that’s how it makes sense to me!

Cheers in Jesus

Peter

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